AIPGMEE 2011 Free Online Test

Test your preparation for AIPGMEE by writing a free online exam that simulates the real exam.

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1. which of the following movements will not be affected by involvement of the L5 Nerve root





2. All of the following statement about injury to common peroneal nerve are true, except.





3. Which Amongst the following is a branch from the trunk of brachial plexus?





4. All of the following form posterior relations of head of pancreas, Except





5. Urethral Crest is situated in





6. All of the following form the floor of third ventricle, Except





  7. Which of the following is not a component of the hypogastric sheath





  8. The bifurcation of common carotid occurs at:





  9. Which of the following is not supplied by the anterior division of mandibular nerve(v3)





  10. Which of the following passes through the foramen magnum





  11. All of the following are pneumatic bones, except:





  12. Which of the following best describes the type of joint seen in the growth plate





  13. Diaphragm develops from all of the following structures, except





  14. Muscular Compound of dorsal aorta develops from





  15. Which of the following vessels do not carry deoxygenated blood in fetal circulation?





  16. the primary action of Nitric oxide (NO) in the gastrointestinal tract is.





  17. Maximum water reabsorption in the Gastrointestinal tract occurs in





  18. Small airways have laminar air flow because:





19. Pulmonary Compliance is decreased in all of the following conditions, Except:





20. A man connected to a body plethysmograph for estimation of FRC inspires against a closed glottis. which of the following statements is true.





  21. A32 year old high altitude mountaineer is observed to have a hematocrit of 70 percent. which of the following represents the most likely cause/explanation:





  22. Orthopnea in heart failure develops due to:





  23. which of the following is not seen in humans:





24. The nucleus involved in paper circuit is:





25. Basal Metabolic Rate depends most closely on:





26. All of the following statements about phagocytosis are true, except





27. Vitamin K is involved in post translation modification of:





28. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because:





29. Which of theĀ  following statement is true:





30. Urea cycle occurs in: .





31. Transfer of an amino group from an amino acid to an alpha-keto acid is done by:





32. Which of the following is a cardioprotective fatty acid:





33. Which of the following statements about High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) is false:





34. All of the following are associated with increased risk of atherosclerotic plaque formation except:





35. All of the following represent disorders or proteing misfolding, Except:





36. which of the following process in a vector is used to increase the yield of protein produced in recombinant protein synthesis:





37. which of the following factors is responsible for deciding whether an antibody/ immunoglobulin will remain membrance bound or get secreted:





38. Methods of fusing two cells in genetic recombination techniques include all of the following techniques, Except:





39.Two trangenic plants were genetically engineered using Recombinant DNA technology. one plant was transformed using a plasmid vector with GFP (Green Fluorescent protein) gene and another plant was transformed with Luciferase gene. Which of these two plants will glow spontaneoulsy in the dark.





40.All of the following are actions of muscarinie antagonists, except:





41. Buprenorphine is classified as:





42. Opioid tolerance develops to all of the following actions, Except:





43. All of the following statements abouts Epidural opioids are true, Except:





44. Which of the following drug is most commonly used world wide in maintenance doses for opioid dependence





45. All of the following statements about serotonin syndrome are true, except: .





46. Which of the following agents is not associated with Hyperthermia





47. A patient who was given primaquine develops dark coloured urine one day after administration of the drug. The likely diagnosis is:





48. Prolonged treatment with INH leads to deficiency of





49. Amphotericin B treatment mandates the monitoring of which of the following electrolytes:





50. Integrase inhibitors approved for HIV is:





51. All of the following statements about meglitinides are true, except:





52. All of the following statements about Ranolazine are true, except:





53. All of the following statements about Selective Estrogen Receptor Downregulator (SERD), Fulvestrant are true, Except





54. AllĀ  of the following statements about Erlotinib are true, except:





55. All of the following statements about 'Aprepitant' are true, except:





56. Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of Thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosupressive cancer chemotheraphy





57. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs should not be used in a patient on Lithium in order to prevent Lithium Toxicity.





58. All of th following are known adverse effects of thalidomide, except:





59. Alkalinization of urine is done during administration of which of the following chemotherapeutic drugs;





60. Mineralocorticoid Recetors are found in all of the following, Except





61. Which of the following organelles plays a pivotal role in Apoptosis





62. All of the following enzymes may contribute in generating free oxygen radicals within neutrophils for killing intracellular bacteria, except:





63. Which of the following enzymes are responsible for generating ' oxygen burst'within neutrophils for killing intracellular bacteria.





64. Most characteristic feature of acute inflammation is:





65. All of the following statements about Xanthogranulomatous inflammation are true except:





66. All of the following are true about blood coagulation, except:





67. HbH is associated with





68. Which of the following statements about platelet funciton defects is true:





69. Which is not true regarding Bernard soulier syndrome?





70. Which of the following antibodies is most frequently seen in Antiphospholipid Syndrome:





71. All of the following are autoimmune disease except:  





72. Necrotizing lymphadenitis is characteristically seen in:





73. All of the following are Neuronal tumors, except:





74. Psammoma bodies may be seen in all of the following, except:





75. Which of the following is the most commonly used 'fixative' in diagnostic pathology





76. A patient presents with signs of pneumonia. The bacterium obtained from sputum was a gram positive cocii which showed alpha hemolysis on sheep agar. which of the following test will help to confirm the diagnosis?





77. Which of the following statements about Pneumococcus is false:





78. An eight year old child with history of pain and discharge from right ear presents with fever, neck rigidity and a positive Kerning's sign. Discharge was stained with gram stain which revealed gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely organism.





79. All of the following agents have polysaccharide capsule related antigen - antibody responses, except:





80. "c" in 'C Reactive Protein' stands for:





81. (a) Which of the following statements is most correct regarding, resistance to Methicillin in MRSA





81. (b) All of the following are true about Methicillin Resistance in MRSA, except





82. Which of the following statements about C. diphteria is flase:





83. Which of the following statements about camphylobacter jejum is false.





84. A farmer presents to the emergency department with painful inguinal lymphadenopathy and history of fever and flu like symptoms. Clinical examination reveals an ulcer in the leg. Which of the following stains should be used to detect suspected bipolar





85. All of the following statements regarding Clostridium Tetani are true,except:





86. A female presents with symptoms and signs suggestive of meaningitis. MRI scan reveals a ring enhancing lesion in the frontotemporal region while CSF grows gram positive bacilli. Other findings are minimally abnormal. Which of the following organisms is the most likely etiological agent:





87. Which of the following statement is not true regarding chlamydia Trachomatis:





88. All of the following statements about parvovirus B 19 are true, except:





89. Which of the following is the most common fungal infection in immunocompetent patient:





90. Aflatoxins are produced by:





91. A patient presents to the emergency department with history of persistant fever and cough. Radiological features are suggestive of Pneumonia. Sputum examination cultures reveal aerobic branching gram positive filaments that are partially acid fast. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent.





92. Visceral larva migram is associated with:





93. Which of the following complement component is the common link in the classical and alternate pathway of the complement system





94. Which of the following cell types are the most potent activators of native T cells





95. All of the following statements about carbohydrate antigents are true, except





96. Ovalbumin was injected into a Rabbit. Which of the following classes of Antibiotics are likely to be produced initially





97. 'Sparrow 's foot' mark is seen in:





98. Gunpowder and/or Soot on bloodstained garments can be visualized by:





99. A Rikshaw tire passed over the body of an 8 year old child leaving distinct markings of the tire treads. Marking's of the Rikshaw Tire over the child's body are best defined as:





100. 'Fracture - ala signature' or signature fracture is:





101. A child is brought to the casualty with reports of violent shaking by parents. Most likely injury is?





102. Dental numbering is done by all, except:





103. Which of the following is an illuminous, translucent and waxy poison





104. A patient presents to the emergency department with bluish discolouration of conjunctiva, mucus membranes and nails one hour after ingestion of a poison. Examination reveals tachycardia and hypotension.which of the following is the most likely ingested poison:





105. Which of the following is commonly used as a Rave drug:





106. Which of th followin organs/tissues are presently not being used for organ/tissue transplantation





107. All of the following indicators represent Human Development Index, Except:





108. Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease?





109. Which of the following represents the denominator in estimating Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR)





110. Chronic carrier state is seen in all except





111. Tetracycline is used in prophylaxis of which of the following disease





112. Vectors may transmit infection by all of the following methods, Expect





113. Which of the following represents a non deliberate cultural practice leading to anti-mosquito effect:





114. All of the following factors are responsible for resurgence of malaria, Except:





115. Which insect amongst the following has not developedĀ  resistance to DDT





116. Which of the following Arboviral diseases is not found in India





117. All of the following statements about Japanese Encephalitis are true, Except:





118. which of the following statements about Leptospirosis istrue





119. A sewage worker presents to the Emergency department with fever and jaundice. Laboratory findings reveal an elevated BUN and serum creatinine suggestive of renal failure. Which of the following antibiotics is recommended?





120. All of the following statements about 'yaws' are true, except:





121. According to Mc Keown's theory, reduction in mortality from Tuberculosis was a consequence of





122. Which of the following test is performed to assess the efficiency of pasteruization





123. Orthotolidine test is used for detecting:





124. which of the following is the least likely cause of indoorĀ  air pollution





125. Which of the following conditions does not have a National screening / Control programme?





126. All of the following 'Reforms' have been proposed by the world Health Report (2008), Except





127. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in:





128.A village is divided into five relevant subgroups for the purpose of a survey. Individuals from each subgroups are then selected randomly. This type of sampling is termed as:





128.b. A region is divided into 50 villages for the purpose of a survey. 10 villages are then selected randomly for the purpose of a study. this type of sampling is termed as





129. A new test for Diabetes mellitus is performed in a group containing diabetics and non - diabetics. If 120 mg/dl of blood sugar is taken as the cut -off, the area shaded in the graph below represents.





130. Punett square is used to





131. An investigator observes that five independent risk factors influence the occurance of a disease. Which of the following statistical tests should be applied to assess the relationship between these 5 risk factors and the occurrence of disease:





132.Pearson's Coefficient of skewness is defined as:





133. All of the following statements regarding disposal of biomedical waste are true, Except





134. (a) Which amongst the following biological agents carries the highest potential for use as a biological weapon for micorbial bioterrorism?





134 b.Which amongst the following biological agents has the least potential for use as a biological weapon for microbial bio terrorism





135. All of the following dietary goals are recommended for patients with high risk of coronary heart disease,Except:





136. ECG is poor in detecting ischemia in areas supplied by which of the following vessels:





137. Which of the following statements regarding treatment of hypothyroidism in a patient with ischemic heart disease is true.





138. Coarctation of Aorta is most commonly associated with:





139. All of the following statements about digoxin induced arrythmias are true, Except:





140. Which of the following is the best inotrope agent for use in Right Heart Failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension





141. which of the following is a poor prognostic factor in Acute Lymphoblastic (ALL)





142. Cavitation lesions in lung are seen in:





143. which of the following tumor is most commonly associated with superior vena cava syndrome:





144. Pulmonary fibrosis is associated with the use of:





145. The acid base status of a patient reveals a pH =7.46 and pCO2 +30 mm Hg. The patient has a partially compensated primary:





146. Sterile Pyuria is characteristically seen in:





147.A young lady presents with symptoms of Urinary Tract Infection. All of the following findings on a midstream urine sample Support the diagnosis of 'Uncomplicated Acute Cystitis', Except:





148.Which of the following is a contraindication for medical management of Gall stones:





149. A young patient presents to the emergency department with fever and right upper quadrant pain. Clinical examination reveals obvious hepatomegaly but there is no jaundice. Ultrasound reveals a solitary, homogeneous, hypoechoic lesion in the right lobe measuring 5 cm x 5cm x 4cm. Test for hydatid diseases were negative. Which of the following is the best recommendation for initial treatment.





150. which of the following agents is recommended for medical treatment of variceal bleed.





151. All of the following statements regarding Diabetes Mellitus are true, Except:





152. Which of the following statements about Diabetic ketoacidosis is true:





153. All of the following are causes of fasting hypoglycemia, except:





154. Which of the following tests is not used in the diagnosis of insulinoma





155.All of the following statements about Nesidioblastosis are true, Except:





156. Which of the following statements about Diabetes Insipidus is true:





157. Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus:





158. All of the following conditions are associated with Hyperthyroidism, Except:





159. The Lab investigation of a patient shows ?T4,& ?TSH, Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:





160. Which of the following statements about Psedohypoprathyroidism is true:





161. A patient present with low serum calcium, high phosphorus and elevated PTH, which of the following investigations is least contributory to establish a diagnosis





162. All are true about pheohromocytoma except:





163. A Young girl presents with repeated episodes of throbbing occipital headache associated with ataxia and vertigo. The family history is positive for similar headaches in her mother. Most likely diagnosis is :





164. All of the following drugs are used in prophylaxis of migraine, except:





165. All of the following are true about anterior choroidal artery syndrome except:





166. Which of the following sites is not involved in a posterior cerebral artery infarct:





167. All of the following are true about delirium tremens. except:





168. A 60years old man with progressive dementia of recent onset presents with intermittent irregular jerky movements. EEG shows periodic sharp biphasic waves. The most likely diagnosis is:





169. (a) A Thirty five year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatigability.The most sensitive test to suggest the diagnosis is:





169. (a) A Thirty five year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatigability.The most sensitive test to suggest the diagnosis is:





170. NARP syndrome is a type of :





171. Which of the following statements about 'Ranula' is most correct:





172.A well differentiated follicular carcinoma of thyroid can be best differentiated from a follicular adenoma by:





173. Multiple Cutaneous sebaceous adenomas are seen in:





174. A thirty year old male presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of epigastric pain radiating a back that wakes him up at night and is relieved by consuming food. He gives history of similar pain in the past which was diagnosed as perforated duodenal ulcer and treated with omental patch surgery on two occasions. Pain before and after surgery has been controlled with proton pump inhibitors and analgesics. the likely diagnosis on this occasion is :





175. Which of the following statements about Gastric carcinoma are true:





176. A lady presents with three day history of epigastric pain radiating to back, serum amylase levels were gall bladder stones and an enlarged pancreas. CT scan was done which clinched the diagosis. which of the following is the most likely diagonis.





177. A fifty year old lady presents with two year history of recurrent abdominal pain with radiation to her back. pain is severe in intensity, and refractory to simple analgesics. Ultrasound and Contrast Enhanced CT scan (CECT) confirmed the diagnosis and showed a dilated pancreatic duct. Which of the following is the likely recommended surgical procedure of choice?





178. A patient with stab injury to anterior abdomen presents with a age of omentum Protruding through the abdominal wall near the umbilicus. on evaluation he is hemodynamically stable and shows no signs of peritonitis. Initial management should involve:





179. A Patient with abdominal injury presents to the emergency department with signs of signs of peritonitis and shock. Airway and Breathing were secured and IV fluids were started with 2large bore cannulas. The next line of management should be:





180. Surgeon excises a portion of liver to the left of the attachment of the falciform ligament. The segments that have been resected are:





181. Renal Calculi associated with proteus infection:





182. Which of the following is the most common cause of delayed urinary tract obstructive symptoms after TURP





183. During TURP, Surgeon takes care to dissect above the verumontonum to prevent injury to :





184. A 55 year old smoker presents with history of five episodes of macroscopic hematuria each lasting for about 4-5days in the past five years. which of the following investigations should be performed to evaluate the suspected diagnosis





185. A 40 year old patient with a single kidney presents witha solitary exophytic mass of 4 cm localized at its lower pole. Which amongst the following is the best recommended management option:





186. A lady who presented with hematuria was found to have stage II Transitional Cell carcinoma of bladder. which of the following statements about management of her condition is true:





187. (a) Surgery for undescended testis is recommended at what age:





187 (b)Ā  Surgery for undescended testes should be performed before what age?





188. A five year old child presents with ballooning of prepuce after micturation. Examination of penis reveals prepucial adhesions which of the following the best treatment:





189. Which of the following nutrients are not included in Total parental Nutrition.





190. A patient with head injury opens eyes to painful stimulus, uses inappropriate words, and localizes pain. what is his GCS score?





191.A Premature baby, born at 33 weeks of gestation with a birth weight of 1500 Gms has stable vitals. which of the following is the initial feeding method of choice:





192.(a) Which of the following is the most important determine of prognosis in neonatal congential diaphragmatic hermia(CDH)





192.(b) Which of the following is the least important progonostic factor in congenital diaphragmatic hernia





193.A neonate delivered at 38 weeks of gestation with a birth weight of 2.2kg develops intolerance to fee/ abdominal distention on second day. physical examination is unremarkable. Sepsis screen is negative. PCV is observed to be 72%. Which of the following represents the best management option.





194. Which of the following is the earliest indicator of pathological gastroesophageal reflux in infants (GERD)





195. Infant of diabetic mother with weight 3.8kg presented with seizures after 16hours of birth. Which of the following is the mostly likely cause?





196. Which of the following represents the additional component in pentology of Fallot





197. Which of the following features on X - ray chest can differential an Atrial septal defect (ASD) from a Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)





198. A previously healthy infant presents with recurrent episode of abdominal pain. The mother says that the child has been passing altered stool after episodes of pain, but given no history of vomiting or bleeding per rectum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:





199. A 12 year old boy presents with hemetemesis, malena and mild splenomegaly. there is no obvious jaundice or ascitis. theĀ  most likely diagonsis is





200. A child presents to the emergency department with fever and mild respiratory distress. he was started on oral antibiotics and showed initial improvement, but later deteriorated again with fever, wheeze and exaggerated breathlessness. Radiographs of chest showed hyperluscency and Pulmonary Function Tests showed an obstructiveĀ  pattern. The most probable diagnosis is:





201. Which of the following is the most common tumor associated with Neurofibromatosis - I (NF -1) in a child





202. Which of the following is the most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children.





203. A six years old children managed by complete surgical removal of carniopharyngioma developed multiple endocrinopathies. Which of following hormones should be replaced first.





204. A one year old child preents with short stature, lethargy,&constipation, Clinical examination shows a palpable goiter, Laboratory investigations revealed a low T4 and elevated TSH which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.





205. An 8 days old male infant is brought to the emergency department with vomiting,lethargy, dehydration and features of shock. Clincial examinations reveals hyper pigmentation of the genital skin and normal external genitatia. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Blood tests revealed sodium of 124 meg/I, Potassium of 7meg/I and hypoglycemia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:





206. Which of the following is the least common cause of ambiguous genitalia in a female child





207. A 15 days old baby presented to the emergency department with history of seizures. Blood tests revealedĀ  serum calcium of 5mg/dl, serum phosphate of 9mg/dl and an intact PTH of 30pg/ml(Normal Inact PTH = 10-60pg/ml). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.





208. A child presents with recurrent bouts of severe cough followed by an audible whoop. Which of the following is considered the best type of specimen to isolated the organism and confirm the diagnosis.





209. (a) A previously healthy eight year old body presented to the emergency department with high grade fever, arthralgia, pruiritic erythematous rash and lymphadenopathy. He had completed 8 days out of a 10days course of refactor for an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following possibilities should be initially suspected:





209. (b) A perviously healthy eight year old body presented to the emergency department with high grade fever, arthralgia, pruiritic erythematous rash and lymphadenopathy.He had completed 8 days out of a 10days course of refactor for an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.





210. Right Sided Isomerism is associated with:





211. A five year old child presents to the emergency department with burns. The burn area corresponding to the size of his plam is equal to





212. weight gain in pregnancy depends on all of the following factors, Except





213. Which one of the following congenital malformations of the fetus can be diagnosed earliest in a first trimester ultrasound?





214. Which of the following is the most specific marker for Neural Tube Defects:





215. Which of the following is the most Sensitive/gold standard test for assessing HCG in maternal serum





216. All of the following are included in the expectant management of placenta Praevia,except:





217. A lady presents at 37 weeks of gestation with uterine contraction and pain suggestive of labour for 10 hours. On examination cervix is persistently 1 cm dilated and uneffected. what should be the next line of treatment?





218. All of the following maneuvers are used in shoulder dystocia, except





219. Which of the following drugs should not be is used in the conduct of labour in a woman with rheumatic heart disease





220. Which of the following is the earliest sign of magnesium toxicity in a patient with ecclampsia on treatment with magnesium sulphate.





221. Which of theĀ  following is the best marker for intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy





222. All of the following drugs can be given to a mother with lupus after 35th week of gestation, Except





223.A primigravida in first trimester was observed to be sputum positive for acid fast bacilli. She had no previous history of tuberculosis. which of the follwoing should be the treatment strategy





224. Which of the following viruses is least likely to cross placenta





225. All of the following interventions are recommended to prevent mother to child transmission of HIVĀ  Except





226. "Clue Cells' are seen in





227. Which of the following is not a cause of primary amenorrhea?





228. A female with 45xo genotype h as primary ammenorrhoea. M ost likely diagnosis is:





229. Which of the following treatments for menorrhage is not supported by evidence:





230. A 45 years old post menopausal woman presents with vaginal bleeding. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals in endometrial thickness of 8.0mm, the nest step in the management should be:





231. Mifepristone may be used for all the following except





232. All of the following hormonal observations in PCOD are true, except:





233. All of the following agents are used in the treatment of hot flashes, except:  





234. Which of the following progesterone is preferred in combination with estrogen in Low dose Oral Contraceptive pills





235. Which of the following methods of contraception should be avoided in woman with epilepsy:





236. Which of the following statements about chlamydia trachomatis is true:





237. Decreased motility of fallopian tube is seen in





238. Which of the following is true about obstructive azoospermia





239. A women presents to the Gynecology outpatient department with history of stress incontinece. which of the following is the treatment of choice for genuine stress incontinence.





240. Blood chimerism is most likely to occur in:





241. Late on set endophthalmitis after cataract surgery is most often caused by:





242. A patient with history of running nose and pain over medial aspect of theĀ  eye presents with sudden onset of high grade fever, prostration, chemosis, Proptosis and diplopia on lateral gaze with congestion of the optic disc. which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:





243. Ophthalmoplegic migraine is best defined by:





244.Diplopia in Superior oblique palsy is most correctly described as:





245. All of the following statement about Argyll Robertson Pupil are correct, Except:





246. A Patient presents with flashing light, Sudden floaters and perception of a curtain falling in front of the eye. which of the following is the most likely diagnosis





247. (a) A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision. There is no obvious family history. ERC is normal but EOG is abnormal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis





247 (b) (a) A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision.Ā  ERC is normal but EOG is abnormal. Which of the following is the most likely diagosis





248. Which of the following agents is not used in the treatments of Diabetic Macular Edema/ Retinopathy





249. The most common cause of bilateral proptosis in children is:





250. The most common malignant orbital tumor in children is





251. A 5 years old boy presents with leucocoria in the right eye which is diagnosed as diffuse retinoblastoma involving the entire globe. Examination of the left eye revealed a small 2-3mm tumor in the periphery. what will be the ideal management of this patient





252. A young boy presents to the ophthalmology department with decreased vision, six months after beings hit by a tennis ball in the eyes. which of the following findings on optical examinations is suggestive of blunt injury to the eye.





253. All of the following statements about sodium in otosclerosis are true, except





254. Vestibular schwannoma arises most frequently from.





255. Endolymphatic hydrops is seen in





256. A five years old boy develops sudden aphonia and respiratory distress while having dinner. which of the following is the next recommended step in the management of this patient?





257. Which of the following is the Gold standard test for Largngopharyngeal Reflux





258. Secondary Haemorrhage after tonsillectomy usually present at:





259. Pain sensations from the ethmoidal sinus are carried by





260. Onodi cells and Haller cells are seen in relation to following structure respectively





261. Main blood supply to the head and neck of femur comes from





262. A sixty five years old lady presents with a long standing history of pain and swelling in her right knee. Pain is significantly interfering with her activities of daily living. Radiological evaluation shows grade III changes of osteroarthritis. whic of the followig is the recommended line of management?





263. An athletic teenage girl complains of anterior knee pain on climbing stairs and on getting up after prolonged sitting. which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?





264. A 50 year old lady sprained her ankle 2 months back from which she made a steady recovery. 2 months after the injury she gradually developed severe pain in her right ankle with significant limitation of ankle movement. clinical examinations reveals edema and shiny skin. What is the likely diagnosis?





265. Most common nerve involved in supracondylar fracture of humerus is:





266. A six year old boy presents to the emergency department with a painful limp.Clinical examination reveals tenderness in the femoral triangle and some limitations of hip movements. An x-ray was done which was normal. Which of the following shouldĀ  be the next course of action?





267. (a) Blount's disease is characterized by





267.(b) Blount's disease is associated with all of the following, except





268.Which of the following statements about 'Low' Radial nerve palsy is not true:





269. All of the following agents decrease bone resorption in osteoporosis, Except





270.Which of the following structure is fixed first during re implantation of an amputated digit:





271.Lines of Blaschko represent:





272. Pseudoisomorphic phenomenon is seen in:





273. Cicatrising alopecia with perifollicular blue-gray patches is most commonly associated with:





274. Erythema nodosum is seen in all of the following except:





275.(a) A young female presents with a history of fever and nodular lesion over the shin. Histopathology reveals foamy histiocytes with neutrophilicinfiltration. Ther is no evidence of Vasculitis. Most probable diagnosis is:





275. (b) A child with fever presents with multiple tender erythematous skin lessions. on microscopic examination the skin lesions are seen to have neutrophilic infilitration in the dermis. what is the diagnosis?





276. A young man presents to the emergency department with a maculopapular rash 2 weeks after healing of a painless genital ulcer. The most likely etiological agent is:





277. All of the following are examples of definite airways, except:





278. Which of the following anesthetic agentsis contraindicated in patients with hypertension?





279. Which of the following is an epileptogenic anesthetic agent





280. Anesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor is contraindicated in?





281. Which anaesthetic modality is to be avoided in sickle cell disease





282. Spinal anesthesia is given at which of the following levels:





283. An anesthesia resident was giving spinal anesthesia when the patients had sudden aphonia and loss of consciousness. What could have happened?





284.Ā  A40 year old female underwent surgery. postoperative she told the anesthetist that she was aware of preoperative events. Individual intraoperative awareness is evaluated by:





285. Rise in end tidal co2 during thyroid surgery can be due to all except:





286. Fire breaks out during laser vocal cord surgery. What is not to be done?





287. Which of the following statements about contrast in radiography is true:





288. Which of the following contrast agents is preferred in a patients with decreased renal function to avoid contrast nephropathy:





289. Consolidation of which portion of the lung is likely to obliterate the Aortic knuckle on x -rays chest





290. Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a chest radiography?





291. Best investigation for bone metastasisĀ  is:





292. Computed Tomography (CT scan)Ā  is least accurate for diagnosts of:





293. Dose of radiation during whole body exposure that leads to Hematological syndrome is:





294.A40yr old femal patient presents with history of depressed mood, loss of appetite insomnia and no interest in surrounding for the past 1yr. these symptoms followed soon after a business loss 1yr back. which of the following statements is true regarding the managements of this patient





295. Antidepressant drug used in nocturnal eneuresis is:





296.Which of the following is the most common cause of premature death in schizophrenia:





297. A patient with acute psychosis who is haloperidol 20mg/days for last 2days has an episode characterized by tongue protrusion, oculogyric crisis, torticollis and abnormal posture of limbs and trunk without loss of consciousness for 20 minutes before presenting to the emergency department. this improved within a few minutes after administration of diphenhydramine. the most likely diagnosis is:





298. All of the following agents are used in the treatment of alcohol dependence, except:





299. A chronic smoker taking 20 cigarettes per day has developed chronic cough. His family suggested quitting cigarettes. He is ready to quit but thinks that quitting will make him irritable. which of following option best describes the stage of behavior Change:





300. All of the following statements about 'Imbacile' are true, Except:







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