AIPGMEE 2008 Free Online Test

1. All of the following muscles are composite muscles Except





2. All of the following are Digastric muscles, Except:





3. In the lungs bronchial arteries supply the bronchopulmonary tree.





4. The skin overlying the region where a venous "cut - down" is made to access the Great saphenous vein is supplied by:





5. Which of the following is the correct order of pathway for a sperm





6. Which of the following veins is found in relation to the para duodenal fossa





7. The artery to the ductus dererens is a branch of





8. Tributary of the cavernous sinus includes all of the following, except:





9. All of the following statements about Diploic veins are true except





10. Which of the following bones do not contribute to the nasal septum?





11. All of the following cranial nerves contain somatic efferent, except





12. Facial colliculus is seen in:





13. Which is the Nucleus of Masseteric Reflex?





14. Lewis triple response is mediated by





15. Which of the following statements about Histamine is true:





16. Which of the following statements regarding" secretin" is least correct?





17. The site where myosin heads bind to actin in skeletal muscles are covered by





18. Which of the following is not a sarcolemmal proteins?





19. Which of the following coagulation factors causes cross linking and stabilization of clot.





20. The blood within the vessels does not clot normally because:





21. The blood pressure measured by a sphygmanometer





22. Which of the following statement is least correct





23. Spermatogenesis occurs at:





24. Which of the following is correct regarding fertilization and implantation?





25. Which of the following statements regarding the flow of lymph from lower limb is true.





26. What is the effect of moderate exercise on cerebral blood now?





27. Which of the following sensation are transmitted by the Dorsal Tract/Posterior column:





28. In Which of the following tissues, is glycogen incapable of contributing directly to blood glucose?





29. which of the following metabolic pathways does not generate ATP





30. Phosphorylase b is maintained in an  inactivated state by





31. Which of the following groups of protein assist in the folding of other proteins?





32. Proteins are sorted by





33. All of the following are trypsin inhibitors, Except:





34. All of the following statements about apoproteins are true except





35. Which of the following types of hypertriglyceridemia is associated with an increase in chylomicron and VLDL remnants?





36. Okazaki fragments are formed during the synthesis of





37. Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?





38. Which vitamin  is required for carboxylation of clotting factors?





39. Which of the following is considered the active form of calcium:





40. Neutral molecules are transported by





41. Reactive oxygen intermediates are released by





42. Delayed prolonged leakage following tissue injury is due to:





43. Which of the following statement about Bradykinin is true:





44. All of the following are Antigen presenting cells (APC) except





45. Hemodialysis associated amyloid is





46. Which of the following oncogenes is a growth factor?





47. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding p53 gene?





48. HMB 45 is an immuno - histological marker for:





49. Specific marker for synovial sarcoma is





50. Which of the following are characteristic markers for Hodgkin's Lymphoma?





51. Rosettes are characteristic in:





52. Which of the following changes does not occur in malignant hypertension:





53. Cresentirc Glomerulonephritis may be seen in all of the following except?





54. Non - Proliferative Glomerulonephritis include all of the following except:





55. The Finnish type of congenital nephritic syndrome occurs due to gene mutations the following protein





56. Which of the following is not a true malignant tumor





57. Differential expressions of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as:





58. Rh factor is a





59. Which of the following statements about Graft versus host disease (GVHD) is least correct.





60. Which of the following is not true regarding super antigens:





61. Ferruginous bodies are commonly seen in.





62. Degeneration of the basement membrane is mediated by





63. Which of the following is most resistant to antiseptics





64. Which of the following statements about gram positive cocci is false





65. Which component of Strep. Pyogenes has cross reactivity to synovium of Human tissues?





66. which of the following statements regarding enteroccoccus is false





67. All of the following statements about V. Cholera 0139 are true except





68 (a) All of the following statements about pneumocystis Jiroveci are true Except





68(b) True statements about Pneumocystic Jiroveci is





69. Which of the following statements about Prions is





70. 'H5 N1' may be best described as a:





71. All of the following are known to cause biliary obstruction Except





72. Phase II in a clinical drug trial is done to assess:





73. Therapeutic index is a measure of a drug's





74. ED 50 is a measure of:





75. Mechanism of action of pralidoxime is:





76. Ipratorpium bromide is contraindicated in





77. Tiotropium is used for





78. All of the following drugs may be used to relieve urinary spams after urological procedures except





79. Use of Ergotamine is contraindicated in





80. Mechanism of action of Clomiphen citrate is





81. Flumazenil is a





82. Which of the following drug is not used in anxiety?





83. Cell wall synthesis is inhibited by all of the following except:





84. Which of the following is an antipseudomonal penicillin?





85. All of the following statements regarding penicillin -G are true Except:





86.(a) Which of the following statements is most correct regarding, resistance to Methicillin in MRSA                                                  





86.(b) All of the following are true about Methicillin Resistance in MRSA, except





87. All of the following statements about adverse effects of tetracyclines are true except





88. Which of the following antibiotics is least Nephrotoxic





89. Drug of choice for prophylaxis in diphtheria is





90. Which of the following drugs is nit given in enteric fever





91. The drug of choice for treatment of Neurosyphilis is





92. Which of the following drugs is not an antifungal agent:





93. Which of the following antibiotics is an anti tumor peptide?





94. Mechanism of action of paclitaxel is





95. Leucovorin is given with





96. Adverse effect of Tacrolimus include all of the following Except:





97. Immunomodulator which is used for genital warts is





98. All of the following enzyme and their reactions are involved in the metabolism of Xenobiotics, Except





99. Which of the following is not a cause of death due to suffocation





100(a) Fracture of the hyoid and thyroid cartilage with neck muscle bruising a diagnosis of





100.(b) Fracture of Hyoid bone, thyroid cartilage and Cricoid Cartilage along with extensive bruising of neck muscles suggests a diagnosis of:





101. Which of the following test is done for detecting vaginal cells from the accused in a case of rape?





102. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of induction of labor with use of abortion stick.





103. False Negative Hydrostatic test in a live born foetus may be seen in





104. Corporobasal index is useful for determination of:





105. Which of the following is an example of a polychlorinated hydrocarbons:





106. Yellow Fatty liver is characteristic of poisoning with





107. Which of the following heavy metal poisoning may cause colitis that resembles diptheritic colitis?





108. A middle aged man from west Bengal presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet, Hyperkeratosis of palms, lines on his nails and rain drop pigmentation. The most likely causative toxin for the above mentioned presentation is:





109. Alkalinisation of urine may be done in case of poisoning with:





110. Iceberg phenomenon differentiates:





111. Which of the following types of bias can be reduced by allowing equal interview time





112. Which of the following is not a criteria suggesting causality in non communicable disease?





113. Which one of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy:





114. which of the following statements regarding live vaccines is false





115. The completed family size may be estimated by:





116. The most common cause of maternal mortality in India is:





117. As per RCH the community health center is a:





118. Which of the following statements about Nutritional surveillance is not true:





119. Which of the following statements about recommended daily allowance is false





120. Highest amount of saturated fatty acid is seen in:





121. Psychrometer is used to measure





122. Concurrent list does not encompass





123. All of the following are zoonosis Except:





124. Soil forms an important reservoir for all of the following infections, Except





125. Soft tick transmits





126. Isolation is strictly recommended for





127. Which of the following is not true about measles?





128. Which of the following statements about Yaws is not true?





129. Dharmendra's index and Jopling's classification deals with





130. Integrated Management of childhood illness (IMCI) initiative was taken to prevent morbidity and mortality from all of the following except





131. KAP studies in India were first used to study





132. Most common occupational cancer in India?





133. Which of the following statements about Delphi method is true





134. Standard deviation is a measure of





135. A patient present with macroglossia  and loss of tongue papilla. His Hb is 11.5 and MCV is 100. What should be next step in investigating this patient?





136. Megaloblastic anemia should be treated with both folic acid vitamin B12 because





137. What will be most appropriate investigation for a 40 years female presenting with anemia, jaundice and sphereocytosis





138. Ring sideroblasts are characteristically seen in





139. Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in all except





140. hemolysis in G6PD may be caused by all except





141. Which of the following is cold agglutinin





142. A patient with renal cell carcinoma is on treatment with Erythropoetin. Erythropoetin use may be associated with all of the following except





143. Most common blood transfusion reaction is





144. Poor prognosis in AML is indicated by





145. DIC is seen in which type of AML?





146. All trans retinoic acid is used in the treatment for





147. Drug of choice for chronic myeloid Leukemia(CML)





148. Torsades Des points may be caused by which one of the following drugs





149. Drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia is





150. A young athlete died of sudden cardiac arrest after atheletic activity. postmortem finding revealed inter ventricular septal hypertrophy. what is the most probable diagnosis?





151. Diffuse esophageal spasm is best diagnosed by





152. A 30 years old female patient presents with non progressive dysphagia, for both solids and liquids. the characteristic findings on barium swallow that will confirm the probable diagnosis is  





153. A young male was found to be HBsAg positivity and HBe Ag negative. His liver enzymes were normal The next step in management of this young male should be.





154. Acute pyelonephritis and uncomplicated UTI may be differentiated by all of the following Except





155. Which of the following best methods of urine collection is associated with least contamination





156. Coloured urine is not seen in





157. MEN I syndrome is most commonly associated with





158. Cushing's disease is associated with





159. Conn's syndrome is most commonly associated with





160. Causative agent for rheumatoid arthritis is





161. Anti phospholipid syndrome (APS) is associated with all of the following Except





162. All of the following statements about hereditary hemochromatosis are true except





163. A 24 year old male presents with abdominal pain, rashes, palpable purpura and arthritis. The most probable diagnosis is





164. Thymoma is associated with





165. Crohn's disease may be caused by which one of the following infectious agents





166. A 25 year old male presents with a history of chronic diarrhea. Pathological examination reveals cryptitis and crypt abscesses. The likely diagnosis is





167. Histopathological findings in Whipple's disease include all of the following Except:





168. Dying back neuropathy is seen in  all except





169. Which of the following agent is least likely to cause Meningitis in the elderly





170. 'Pick's body in pick's disease is





171. Biondi Ring Tangles (BRT) are found in





172. Which of the following is not a feature of extramedullary tumour





173. Clinical features of conus Medullaris syndrome include all of the following Except





174. All of the following statements about Diffuse Axonal injury (DAI) are true except:





175. Which of the following is not seen in chronic Regional pain syndrome?





176. Which of the following is a non absorbable suture?





177. Which of the following is used to define penetrating Neck injury?





178. Decision regarding  surgery in a case of hemothorax due to blunt trauma chest should be based on:





179. A male patient with blunt Trauma abdomen is hemodynamically stable. What is the next line of management?  





180. A young patient presents with a massive injury to proximal duodenum, head of pancreas and distal common bile duct. The producer of choice in this patient should be:





181. Which of the following is not a landmark for facial nerve during parotid surgery?





182. Abbe- Est lander Flap is used for





183. Most common histological type of the tyroid





184. Complications of Hemithyroidectomy include all of the following except?





185. A 25 year old female complains of discharge of blood from a single duct in her breast. The most appropriate treatment is:





186. Most common tumor in the posterior mediastinum is:





187. A patient with ITP has a platelet count of 50,000 and is being planned for splenectomy. What is the best time for platelet infusion in this patient?





188. A 45 year old female presents with symptoms of acute cholecystitis. on USG there is a solitary gallstone of size 1.5cm. Symptoms are controlled with medical management. Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in the management of this patient?





189. An otherwise normal female presents with symptoms of flatulent dyspepsia. She was started on proton pump inhibitors, which controlled her symptoms. The next step in management of this condition should be.





190.(a) A chronic Alcoholic presents with abnominal pain radiating to the back that responds to analgesics. At evaluation the pancreatic duct was found to be dilated and stones were noted in the tail of pancreas. The most appropriate management is:





190.(b) A chronic alcoholic Presents with repeated episodes of severed intractable abdominal pain. At evaluation the pancreatic duct was found to be dilated  and stones were noted in the tail of pancreas. The most appropriate management is:





191. A patient undergoes a prolonged and complicated pancreatic surgery for chronic pancreatitis. Most preferred route for supplementary nutrition in this patient would be.





192. A surgeon excises a portion of liver to the left of the attachment of the flciform ligament. The segments that have been resected are:





193. Which of the following statements about volvulus  is false:





194.. Anal fissure best diagnosed by





195. Which of the following statements is true for Nigro's regimen





196. A  30 year old male patients presents with sudden onset swelling and pain over the right hemiscrotum. on examination the scrotum is redened and tender. Which of the following statements about the affecting condition is not true?





197. Ureteric colic due to stone is caused by





198. Epispadias is associates with?





199. Trans rectal ultrasonogram in evaluation of carcinoma prostate most useful for:





200. A new born child has not passed meconium for 48 hrs what is the diagnostic procedure of choice?





201. A new born baby presents with absent anal orifice and meconuria. What is the most appropriate management?





202. In complete mullerian duct aplasia all of the following are likely to be absent Except:





203. The first sign of puberty in girls is:





204. Which of the following statements about calendar method (Rhythm method) is false





205. Least failure in sterilization occurs with





206. Which of the following producers is associated with maximum chance of re - canalization during surgery for reversal of tubal ligation





207. Which of the following modalities have shown best result for Pre Menstrual Syndrome?





208. A woman present with a fluctuant non tender swelling at the introitus. The best treatment is





209. Salpingitis / Endosalpingitis is best confirmed by





210. All of the following statements about androgen insensitivity syndrome are true except:





211. Virus associated with cancer cervix is





212. Which of the following statements about squamous cell carcinoma of cervix is false





213. What of the ideal treatments or a 55 yr female with simple hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia?





214. Which  of the following conditions is not diagnosed by chorionic villous biopsy?





215. Which of the following is not correct regarding Doppler studies of the umbilical circulation ?





216. All of the following are known causes of recurrent abortion except





217. Which of the following interventions is not recommended in active management of IIIrd stage of labour?





218. Induction at term is indicated in all of the following except:





219. Which of the following is not a contraindication of vaginal delivery after previous cesarean section (CS)?





220.Risk factors for Placenta Accreta include all of the following Except:





221. All of the following agents are tocolytics except





222. Which of the following drugs is not useful in the management of postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH)





223. Which of the following medications is the drug of choice for severe preeclampsia?





224. Which of the following dietry supplements is recommended for a pregnant  lady on Heparin:





225. Which of the following statements about breast infection during lactation is most correct:





226. Which of the following congenital infections is associated with minimal teratogenic risk to the fetus:





227 A pregnant mother present with history of delivery of a previous child with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). the best management protocol for the current pregnancy is:





228. The following statements about Gomez classification is false:





229. The most common cause of short stature is





230. A very low birth weight preterm baby is on ventilator for respiratory distress. Baby presents with clinical features of necrotizing entercolitis with perforation. What is the appropriate management?





231. Probiotics have been found beneficial for use in:





232. A child presents with massive hepatomegaly and hypoglycemia. There is no improvement in blood glucose on administration of glucagon. The probable diagnosis is





233. Which condition is most commonly associated with coarctation of aorta?





234. Right sided aortic arch is most strongly/ Commonly associated with:





235. All of the following statements about patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) are true except:





236.(a) A child presents with severe respiratory distress two days after birth. On examination he was observed to have a scaphoid abdomen and decreased breath sounds on the left side. He was managed by prompt endotracheal intubation. After ET tube placement the maximal cardiac impulse shifted further to the right side. What should be the next step in management?





236.(b) A child presented with severe respiratory distress two days after birth. On examination he was observed to have a scaphoid abdomen and decreased breath sounds on the left side. He was managed by prompt endotracheal intubation. After ET tube placement the maximal cardiac impulse shifted further to the right side. What should be the next step in management?





237. A 71/2 months old child with cough, mild stridor is started on oral antibiotics. The child showed initial improvement but later developed wheeze, productive cough, and mild fever. X - ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows an  obstructive curve. The most probable diagnosis is,





238. A male born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy, labor and delivery develops severe respiratory distress within a few hours of birth. results of routine culture were negative. The chest roengogram reveals a normal heart shadow and fine reticulondular infiltrates radiating from the hilum. ECHO findings reveal no abnormality. Family history reveals similar clinical course and death of a male and female sibling at 1 month and 2 month of age respectively. The most likely diagnosis is





239. A 6yr child present with recurrent episodes of gross hematuria for 2yrs. He is likely to have.





240. Which of the following statements regarding Kawasaki diseases is True





241. Which of the following statements about 21 alpha hydroxylase deficiency is false:





242. Commonest type of seizure in  newborn





243.(a) Symptomatic Neontal CNS involvement is most commonly seen in which group of congenital intrauterine infections





243.(b) CNS involvement is most commonly associated with  which group of congenital intrauterine infections





244. Which of the following statements about cerebellar astrocytomas in paediatric age group is false





245. What is the probable diagnosis for a cyst in a child which is located at and associated with Vertebral defect?





246. Amongst various treatment modalities for nocturnal enuresis, the relapse rate have been observed to be lowest for:





247. Resistance plasmodium  falciparum malaria in the pediatric age group should be treated by





248. The WHO definition of low vision children:





249. The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India is:





250. The major function of Major Intrinsic protein 26 (MIP - 26) is





251. Which of the following is not seen in the inter photoreceptor matrix





252. Final common pathway for horizontal gaze involves:





253.(a) Von Recklinghausen disease is associated with





253.(b) Von Recklinghausen disease is associated with





254. Sarcoidosis is associated with:





255. Intractable secondary galucoma is seen in:  





256. Persistant Primary Hyperplastic Vitreous (PHPV) is associated with:





257. A new born presents with bilateral microtia and external auditory canal atresia. Corrective surgery is usually performed at:





258. In cochlear impacts electrodes are most commonly placed at:





259. A 70 year old male present with loss of sensation in external auditory meatus (Histelberg's sign positive). the likely diagnosis is:





260. A 70 years old male presents with hearing loss and tinnitus. On examination he was observed to have a conductive type of deafness and a dull tympanic membrane on the right side. Lymph nodal enlargement of 3x3 cm was noted in the posterior triangle of neck. Tympanogram revealed a type B wave. The most likely diagnosis is:





261. What is the type of joints between the ossicles of ear?





262. All of the following are diagnostic criteria of Allergic Fungal Sinusitis (AFS) Except:





263. A 30years old female with history of singing,Vocal abuse and gastrooesophageal reflux developed nodules at junction of anterior 1/3rd & middle 3rd of her vocal cords. What is treatment of choic?





264. Autologus bone graft is commonly taken from





265. Which of the following statement about 'Low' Radinal nerve palsy is not true.





266. Which of the following statements about tubercular osteomyelitis is not true?





267. Coronary ligaments of the knee are





268. When a patient gets up from sitting position which of the following events place in his knee joint?





269. In acute knee injuries with Swelling & hemarthrosis with muscle spasm which of the following tests in most sensitive to detect anterior cruciate ligament





270. The blood supply of Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) is primary derived from





271. In which of the following meniscal ters will meniscectomy be a more suitable option than meniscal repair?





272. A patient with HIV is on therapy with protease inhibitors. He presents with limitation of abduction and internal rotation of the hip. The most probable diagnosis is:





273. A 56 year old type II diabetic presents with complaints of swelling in the left ankle with effusion but only minimal pain. X –rays show severe osteopenia with bone destruction, extensive osteophytosis & loose bodies. The management of this patient includes all the following except:





274.Pollicization can be best described as:





275. 16 year old male presents with extensive heterotropic ossification over the neck, back &shoulders and decreased chest movements. He gives history of progressive immobility since the age of 3 years. Which of the following statements about his affecting condition is not true?





276. A male patient presents with patchy loss of hair on scalp, eyebrows and bread. He also gives a history of rapid graying of hair in a few areas. The likely diagnosis is:





277. A 40 yr old female developed persistent oral ulcers followed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk and extermeties . Direct examination of a skin biopsy immunoflurescene showed intercellular IgG deposits in the epidermis and suprabasal split with acantholytic cells. The probable diagnosis is:





278. A Hetero sexual male presents with multiple non – indurated painful ulcers with undermined edges and enlarged lymph nodes 5 days after exposure. Most likely diagnosis is





279. The Drug of choice for a pregnant woman in 2nd trimester with pustular psoriasis is:





280. Drug of choice for type II Lepra Reaction is:





281. Train of four fade is a characteristic feature of





282. Which of the following statements about propofol is not true





283. Which of the following statements about inhalation anesthetic agents is wrong?





284. Photoelectric effect can be best described as an:





285. Allergic Reactions to Radiological Contrast Agents are:





286. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive phase of the cell cycle?





287. Which of the following agents is used to measure Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)





288. Flaring of anterior ends of the ribs is characteristically seen in:





289. Inferior Rib notching is seen in:





290. Earliest radiological sign of pulmonary venous hypertension in chest X –ray is:





291. Earliest sign of Left Atrial enlargement is:





292. Which of the following is the most common feature of Aortitis on chest X ray





293. Iinvestigation of choice for detection and characterization of interstitial lung disease is:





294. Best radiographic view for fracture of C1, C2 vertebrae is





295. All of the following are diagnostic features of illeocecal tuberculosis on barium follow through, Except:





296. The term “Demetia Precox” was coined by





297. 25 yrs old female to casually with chest pain, sweating , restlessness, dyspnoea, and palpitation. Enzyme analysis and X –ray are normal. She becomes asymptomatic with supportive measures. The probable diagnosis is:





298. Which of the following is NOT a clinical features of post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?





299. Two months after knowing that his son is suffering form leukemia, a 45 years old father presents with sleep deprivation, letharagy headache, and low mood. He interacts reasonably well with others’ but has absented himself from work. The most probable diagnosis is:





300. A 30 yr old male presents to the OPD with Erectile dufunction. Basic screening evaluation is unremarkable. The next step in the evaluation/ management should be?







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