AIPGMEE 2007 Free Online Test

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1.Primordial germ cell is derived from:





2.Movements of pronation & supination occurs in all the following joints except,





3.About Posterior cruciate ligament -true statement is





4.Structures that pass from thorax to abdomen behind the diaphragm are all except





5.Most common site of Morgagni Hernia is





6.Structures that does not cross the midline is





7.Porto-systemic shunt is not seen in





8.Injury to the male urethra below the perineal membrane causes urine to accumulate in





9.All are true about the trig one of the urinary bladder except





10.Supports of the uterus are all except





11.Posterior communicating artery a branch of





12.Which of the following is not a branch of Cavernous segment of Internal Carotid Artery?





13.Difference between typical cervical & thoracic vertebral





14.Which of this part of vertebral canal will show secondary curves with concavity backwards?





15. The substance that is present in both serum and plasma is:





16. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of





17. Site of RBC formation in 20 year old healthy male is:





18. Which of the following is true about fourth heart sound ‘S4’:





19. Heart muscle, true are all except





20. Broca’s area is concerned with:





21. The nucleus involved in papez circuit is:





22. The mechanism of hearing and memory include all except:





23. The processing of short term memory to long term memory is done in:





24. Delta waves are seen in:





25. Toxic effects of high oxygen tension include all of the following except:





26. Which of the following adaptations will be apt to increase the work capacity at high altitude:





27. All of the statements are true for ‘Intestinal Motility’ except:





28. Which of the following hormone is not secreted by the kidney?





29. Males and females show difference in the age of onset of puberty. The difference in the age of onset of puberty amongst males may be explained by:





30. All of the following are true regarding oxygenases except:





31. Treatment of Multiple Carboxylase Deficiency is:





32. Basement membrane degeneration is mediated by:





33. Which of the following enzymes is stable at acidic pH.





34. Regarding proteoglycans, false is:





35. Protein purification and separation can be done by all except:





36. study of multiplication of proteins in disease process is called:





37. Protein that precipitates on heating to 45oC and redissoles on boiling is:





38. Northern blot is used for the separation of:





39. Ragarding cytosolic eukaryotic gene expression false is:





40. CAP in Lac operon is an example of:





41. C terminal end of androgen receptor is concerned with:





42. All of the following occur in mitochondria except:





43. Regarding HMP shunt all of the following are true except:





44. Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which of the following regulating pathways?





45. Dinitrophenol causes:





46. Regarding synthesis of triacyl glycerol in adipose tissue, all of the following are true except:





47. Earliest transient change following tissue injury will be:





48. Oxygen dependent killing is done through





49. Factor present in the final common terminal complement pathway is:





50. The immunoglobulin involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction is,





51. Arthus reaction is what type of hypersensitivity reaction





52. The following protein defects can cause hereditiary spherocytosis except:





53. All L3 morphology is a malignancy arising from which cell lineage





54. Non specific esterase is positive in all the categories of AML except





55. Bone marrow in Al amyloidosis shows:





56. A diabetic patient is undergoing dialysis, Aspiration daone around the knee joint would show,





57. What is the best method for confirming amyloidosis:





58.Which one of the following is true,





59. A young male patient presented with UTI On urine examinations pus cells were found but no organism. Which method would be best used for culture?





60. Components of Innate immunity that are active against viral cell includes:





61. A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive Cocci in chains and hemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism,





62. A patient in an ICU is on central venous line for the past one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cooci in chains, Which are catalase negative. Following this voncomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 10 days of therapy. The most likely organism causing this infection is





63. A farmer presents with pustules, Which show gram positive cocci on smear. Culture shows beat hemolysis, and organism are catalase negative. To show that the identified organism is group A streptococci, which of the following test should be done?





64. Which is not true about vibrio choera:





65. Which of the following bacteria act by increasing C –AMP.





66. All of the following statements are true about V . Cholera 0139 except:





67. An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough, Sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast extract medium. The organism is





68. A person working in an abattoir presented with a papul e on hand, Which turned into an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis





69. Brucella is transmitted by all except:





70. Botulinum affects all except:





71. With reference to bacteriodes fragilis, the following statement s are true except:





72. Which of the following statement is not true regarding Chlamydia Trachomatis:





73. All statements are true for chylamydia psittacosis





74. Rabies is identified by





75. All of the following may be associated with Beta 2 agonist treatment except





76. All of the following may be associated with the used of Beta agonist in preterm labour Except:





77. All of the following are nonselective Beta blockers with additional actions except:





78. True statements bout clonidne are all except,





79. Finasteride is a :





80. The following drugs may be used in erectile dysfunction except,





81. The following drugs are used in obesity except?





82. Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist?





83. Which of the following is beneficial in NSAID induced gastric ulcer?





84. All of the following have receptors which are transcription factors,except,





85. All are short and rapid acting insulins except





86. True about Octreotide are all except:





87. Which of the following is not an antiepileptic agent:





88. All of the following antiepileptic agents act via Na+ channel except:





89. Nestritide is a:





90. Prothombin Time (PT) of a patient is 26, Control PT is 13 seconds and sensitivity index is 1.41. What will be the INR of this patient:





91. Which of the following is a prodrug?





92. All of the following statements about Heparin are true except





93. All of the following are GpIIb/IIIa antagonist except:





94. The following drug is not useful for MRSA





95. Orange coloured urine is due to:





96. Nevirapine belongs to the following group





97. The following drug has maximum propensity to cause peripheral neuropathy





98. All are true about immunosuppressants except?





99. Which of the following is not an alkylating agent?





100. The following drug acts by hypomethylation





101. Drug causing hypercoagulability is:





102. Methotrexate is used in high doses in:





103. Filgrastim is used in treatment of:





104. Spalding sign is seen in





105. Burtonian line is seen with poisoning of





106. Acrodynia is associated with





107. Mercury will affect which part of the renal tubule





108. The drug of choice for mushroom poisoning is:





109. Which of the following is not an aryl phosphate?





110. All of the following indicators are included in physical quality of life index (PQLI) except





111. 85% of lung cancer among smokers was due to their smoking. This is an example of





112. All of the following statements are true for Herd immunity except





113. Which of the following vaccine is not included in EP schedule





114. Chronic carrier state is seen in all except





115. Least common complication of measles is





116. Under eradication of congenital rubella syndrome program the first priority group for rubella vaccination is





117. Strategies for prevention of Neonatal Tetanus include all of the following except:





118. Which is true of BCG vaccination?





119. Case finding in RNTCP is based on





120. Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true





121. Which of the following is not transmitted by lice,





122. True about endemic typhus –





123. On SAFE strategy false is





124. All are common cause of blindness in children in India except,





125. BMI to classify obesity should be:





126. Impact and efficiency of iodine control program can be estimated by





127. Compared with cow’s milk, Mother’s milk has more,





128. The highest percentages of poly unsaturated fatty acids are present in?





129. Chlorine demand is measured by





130. All can be incinerated except





131. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the different in:





132. The major purpose of Randomization in clinical trials is to





133. All of the following are true about cluster sampling except:





134. A data is arranged as satisfied, very satisfied, dissatisfied. This is a





135. A study was conducted to test if use of herbal tea played any role in prevention of common cold. Data was collected on the number of people who developed cold and those who did not develop cold and this data was tabulated in relation to whether they consumed Herbal tea or not. Herbal tea Consumed Not consumed Had cold 12 23 Did not have a cold 34 38 The analytical test of choice to test this study is:





136. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, You need to know





137. Which of the following findings is diagnostic of iron deficiency anemia.





138. A normotensive patient with normal hemoglobin suffered massive blood loss. The following findings would be present in him except





139. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is associated with malignancy of which lineage





140. Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in:





140.b. Pancytopenia with hypercellular bone marrow is seen in:





141. Bone marrow biopsy is absolutely indicated in,





142. In PML, all of the following are seen except





143. 80 year old, asymptomatic man present with a Total Leucocyte Count of 1 lakh, with 80% lymphocytes and 20% PMC’s. What is the most probale diagnosis?





144. Which of the following statements about Mycosis fungoides is not true.





145. Erythropoietin is increased in all of the following conditions except





146. A patient on aspirin, will show the following finding?





147. The following set of finding is seen in DIVC :





148. Which is not true regarding Bernard soulier syndrome?





149. The following is the least useful investigation in multiple myeloma.





150. The following ECG findings are seen in Hypokalemia:





151. CCF is associated with increase in all of the following except:





152. A person with mitral regurgitation and atrial fibrillation presents with syncope. On examination the person has a heart rate of 55. What is the most probable cause?





153. A Patient presents with acute anterior wall infarction and hypotension. Which will be the immediate treatment modality for this patient,





154. A 70 year old man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Patient goes into renal failure and has a BP of 70/50mm of Hg. Drug that should be used to maintain BP is:





155. A patient present with decreased vital capacity and total lung volume. What is the most probabale diagnosis?





156. All of the following drugs are commonly used in regimens against H. Pylori except:





157. A patient with H. pylori infection is treated with drugs. The best method to detect presence of residual H. Pylori infection in the person is:





158. A patient Present with chronic small bowel diarrhea, Duodenal biopsy shows villous atrophy. Anti endomysial antibodies and IgA TTG antibodies are positive. What is the treatment of choice?





159. The test used to diagnose Dubin Johnson syndrome is:





160. Most common cause of nephritic range proteinuria in adults is:





161. A 30 year old man presents with generalized edema and hypertension. Urine examinations shows subnephrotic proteinuria (<2gm) and microscopic hematuria. Serum complement levels are decreased and he is positive for antihepatitis C antibodie. The most likely diagnosis is:





162. Which of the following endocrine tumors is most commonly seen in MEN I?





163. Treatment of choice for Zollinger Ellison syndrome (ZES) is:





164. SIADH is associated with the following drug.





165. Hypophosphatemia is seen in all except:





166. C – ANCA Positivity indicates, antibody formed against





167. Deposition of Anti ds DNA ab in kidney, skin, choroid plexus and joints is seen in:





168. Best marker for drug induced lupus is,





169. All of the following are true about Raynaud’s disease except:





170. The following are components of Kawasaki disease except:





171. Increased ICT is associated with all except:





172. Pontine stroke is associated with all except:





173. Millard Gubler syndrome includes the following except:





174. All of the following statements are true about Benedikt’s syndrome except:





175. The following are components of Brown sequard syndrome except:





176. Which of the following is the classical CSF finding seen in TBM?





177. All of the following organs may be involved in leprosy except:





178. Treatment of severe ulnar neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy is:





179. Chronic Burrowing ulcer is caused by





180. Which of the following is not a histological variant of thyroid neoplasm ?





181. All of the following are true about Lymphoma of the thyroid except:





182. The following is a maker of paget’s disease of the mammary gland





183. All of the following statements about Gynaecomastia are true except:





184. Preferred incision for abdominal exploration in Blunt injury abdomen is:





185. Which of the following statements related to gastric injury is not true?





186. A patient sustained Traumatic injury to major abdominal vessels, It has been planned to explore the suprarenal aorta, and the Left renal artery. What maneuver for exposure is recommended;





187. All of the following polyps are premalignant except





187b. Which of the following has least malignant potential





188. Which of the following statements is true about external haemorrhoids?





189. The following statements about pilonidal sinus is true:





190. A 60 yr old smoker came with a history of painless gross hematuria for one day. Most logical investigation would be





191. A patient is brought to the hospital with history of RTA 8 hours back. A few drops of blood were noted at the external urethral meatus. He had not passed urine and his bladder is palpable per abdomen. What is the probable diagnosis:





192. A 50 year old man known to have diabetes presents with, Poor urinary stream, hesitancy, difficulty in micturation and failure to void completely. What is the diagnosis?





193. 50 years old male with positive family history of prostate cancer has come to you for a screening test. The most sensitive screening test to pickup prostate cancer is:





194. Best prognostic factor for head injury is:





195. The shape of a Nulliparous cervix is:





196. Fibroid uterus may present with all of the following except:





197. Most common gestational trophoblastic disease following hydatiform mole is





198. Most common cause for postmenopausal bleeding in India woman is:





199. Most common agent responsible for Ca cervix is:





200. Most common ovarian cyst to undergo torsion is:





201. Non contraceptive benefits of O C pills may be seen in all of the following conditions except:





202. The following statements are true about Intrauterine devices (IUD) except:





203. Which of the following IUCD’s has a life span of 10 years





204. An antihormonal substance used to induce ovulation is:





205. Most common site for female tubal sterilization is:





206. Aspiration of sperms form testes is done in:





207. Maximum cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in:





208. Nuchal translucency at 14 wks is suggestive of





209. In a lady of 32 weeks pregnancy injection dexamethasone is given to prevent;





210. Bishops score includes all of the following except:





211. On Transvaginal Sonography (TVS) which of the following shapes of cervix indicate imminent preterm labour:





212. Which of the following Doppler findings in IUGR is associated with worst prognosis:





213. External Cephalic version (EC) is contraindicated in:





214. Caudal Regressions syndrome is seen in babies of mothers having:





215. A Large Baby is born. The likely complication in pregnancy is:





216. Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely associated with:





217. Antiepileptic which is not associated with congenital malformation when used in pregnant woman is:





218. Treatment of choice for ovarian cyst in a postpartum patient is:





219. Highest transmissions of hepatitis B from mother to fetus occurs if the mother is infected during.





220. A baby has recently developed mouthing but has not developed stranger anxiety, likes and dislikes for food. What is the most appropriate age of this baby?





221. Which of the following milestone develops first?





222. A 6 years oldchild has an IQ of 50. Which of the following tasks should the child be able to perform:





223. Moro’s Reflex diaappears at:





224. Which of the following reflexes is not present at birth:





225. The most common cause of short stature is:





226. Which of the following is the best indicator of long term nutritional status:





227. Most common tumor in children is,





228. All of the following syndromes are associated with AML except:





229. All of the following are good prognostic factors for child hood. All except:





230. Which of the following is a minor criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever(RF) according to modified jones Criteria?





231. Which of the following is a component of pentalogy of fallot:





232. Cardiomyopathy is not a feature of:





233. Most common mode of treatment of a 1 year old child with asthma is:





234. The leukotriene recptor antagonist used in bronchial asthma is:





235. A child with three days history of upper respiratory tract infection presents with stridor, Which decreases on lying down position: What is the most probable diagnosis





236. A newborn has congenital hear failure which is not improving on treatment. He has bulging anterior fontanelles with a bruit on ausculatation. On trans fontanella USG a hypoechoeic midline mass is seen with dilated lateral ventricles. Most probable diagnosis is:





237. Most common organism causing meningitis in a 1 year old child,





238.Jitteriness can be distinguished from seizures by all of the following except:





239. A child has Microcephaly, Blue eyes, Fair skin, and Mental retardation, Ferric chloride test is positive. What is the likely diagnosis?





240. Darkening of urine on standing is associated with:





241. Premature baby of 34 wks was delivered. Baby developed bullous lesion on the skin and X –ray shows periostitis. What should be the next investigation?





242. A child is brought with drownsiness, decreased deep tendon reflexes and seizures. On examination the child has a line on gums. There is history o constipation which will be most appropriate drug that should be used in this child?





243. Cat eye syndrome is





244. All of the following conditions have Autosomal Dominant Inheritance except:





245. In an Automsomal Recessive (AR) disorder, one parent is normal and the other is carrier and the child is also affected. What is the reason?





246. Pedigree analysis – Analyze the following pedigree and give the mode of inheritance





247. Tube cast applied in # around:





248. Which is not a deep heat theraphy?





249. Claw hand is caused by lesion involving:





250. Meralgia parasthetica is due to the involvemen of:





251. All of the following nerves are involved in entrapment neuropathy except:





252. Bohler’s angle is measured in the fractures involving:





253. Most common force involved in fractures of the spine is:





254. Mechanism of violence in burst fracture of the spine:





255. Which bone tumor occurs in the epiphysis?





256. 15 year old boy presented with a mass in the distal femur. X –ray from the lesion showed features of codman’s triangle and sunray appearance. The diagnosis is:





257. Which of the following investigations is not required in Osetosarcoma.





258. Which of the following is a ‘ Pulsating tumor’ of bone:





259. Which of the following is a marker of new bone formation:





260. A patient presents with heterotopic ossification around the knee joint. The laboratory investigation of choice in him is:





261. Which of these muscles undergoes wasting first in osteoarthritis knee?





262. Mucopolysacharide Hyaluroniac acid is present in:





263. Transport of Ascorbic acid to lens is done by:






264. Which of the following does not handle the oxidative damage in lens?





265. All statements are true about papilloedema except:





266. Cherry red spot is seen in all of the following conditions except:





267. Lamina cribrosa is absent in:





268. Which of the following conditions has autosomal dominant inheritance:





269. A child presents with unilateral proptosis which is compressile and increases on bending forwards. It isnon – pulsalite and has no thrill or bruit. MRI shows retroorbital mas with echogenic shadows. The most probable diagnosis is:





270. Rhinolalia clausa is associated with all of the following except:





271. Rhinophyma is associated with





272. Common site for CSF Rhinorrhoea is





274. CSF rhinorrhoea is diagnosedby





275. In Acoustic neuroma cranial nerve to be involved earliest is





275. Brown sign is seen in





276. Which of the following is true regarding facial nerve palsy associated with Temporal bone fractures:





277. The following statement is true for pityriasis Rosea:





278. An infant presented with erythematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of limbs. Mother has history of bronchial asthma. The probable diagnosis is:





279. Tuberculides is seen in





280. Which one of the following is not an amide linked local anaesthetic:





281. A young boy undergoes eye surgery under day case anesthesia with succinyl choline and propofol and after 8 hours he starts walking and develops muscle pain. What is the likely cause?





282. An elderly male on ventilator has received atracurium infusion for 3 days. He now develops epileptic fits. Probable cause for his epilepsy is:





283. Which of the following opioids is not given intrathecally





284. Centrineuraxial (Spinal and epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in –





285. Which of the following is not used in controlling heart rate intraoperatively.





286. A non ventilated preterm baby in incubator is under observation. Which is the best way to monitor the baby’s breathing and detect apnea?





287. Investigation of choice for a lesion of the temporal bone is:





288.A young male is brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift. Basal cistern were compressed with multiple Small Haemorrhages. What is the likely diagnosis:





289. A 45 year old female complains of progressive weakness and spasticity of the lower limb with difficulty in micturiton. CT scan shows an intradural mid dorsal midline enhancing lesion. The likely diagnosis is:





290. Basal Ganglia calcification is seen in all except:





291. Radiocontrast is contraindicated in all except:





292. Which of the following isotopes is used for RAIU?





293. Delusion is a disorder of





294. All of the following conditions areincluded in the diagnosis of Bipolar disorder except:





295. The drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder is:





296. Most common symptom of alcohol withdrawal is:





297. Naltraxone is used in a case of opioid in India is:





298. Most common substance of abuse in India is:





299. A 3 year old child presents with delayed speech and poor concentration. He has difficulty in communication and is not making and friends. The likely diagnosis is:







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