AIPGMEE 2006 Free Online Test

Test your preparation for AIPGMEE by writing a free online exam that simulates the real exam.

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1. Which of the following is an intra-articular tendon?





2. Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block:





3. A 43-years-old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient notices that she could not extend her right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of additional harm?





4. Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of:





5. In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at:





6. Lymphatic drainage of the cervix occurs by all of the following lymph nodes, except:





7. All of the following are the components of the white pulp of spleen, except:





8. Polar bodies are formed during:





9. The normal range of serum osmolality ( in mOsm/L) is:





10. Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the primary visual cortex is:





11. The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with :





12. The parvocellular pathway, from the lateral geniculate nucleus to the visual cortex, carries signals for the detection of:





13. The maintenance of posture in a normal adult human being depends upon:





14. The first reflex response to appear as spinal shock wears off in human is:





15. The hyperkinetic features of the Huntington's disease are due to the loss of:





16. The cell bodies of orexinergic neurons are present in:





17. The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by:





18. The Prime driving force for counter current multiplier system is:





19. Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homeostasis?





20. Calcitonin is secreted by:





21. Testosterone production is mainly contributed by:





22. Ovulation is primarily caused by preovulatory surge of:





23. All of the following development events are dependent on the production of maternal or fetal glucocorticoid, except:





24. Which of the following secretions has a very high pH?





25. A pilot in Sukhol aircraft is experiencing negative G.Which of the following physiological events will manifest in such situation?





26. In human being, the least useful physiological response to low environmental temperature is:





27. During phagocytosis,the metabolic process called respiratory burst involves the activation of:





28. Theligand-receptor complex dissociates in the endosome because:





29. The specialized mammalian tissue/organ in which fuel oxidation serves not to produce ATP but to generate heat is:





30. The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight is:





31. Which one of the following can be a homologous substitution for isoleucine in a protein sequence?





32. Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids.They fold into compact structures, sometimes these folded structures associate to form homo-or hetero-dimers. Which one of the following refers to this associated form?





33. The comparison of the amino acid sequence of Cytochrome C from different species shows many variations.Most of these variations are found:





34. There are more than 300 variants of human hemoglobin gene. Among these only a few are fatal.Hence, the most important factor to be conserved in a protein for its function is the:





35. The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices in the body.The shape of these proteins is:





36. All of the following amino acids are converted to succiny1-CoA, expect:





37. The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is:





38. The long and short arms of chromosomes are designated respectively as:





39. Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively:





40. Microsatellite sequence is:





41. Mitochondrial DNA is :





42. Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base?





43. The sigma(s) subunit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase:





44. Which one of the following is the complementary sequence of 5' TTAAGCTAC 3'?





45. During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes polymerizes the Olkazaki fragments?





46. All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telemerase which protects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, except:





47. Base substitution mutations can have be following molecular consequence except:





48. The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the beta (ß)-globin gene that cause sickle cell anemia, except:





49. Vitamin B12 acts as co-enzyme to which one of the following enzymes?





50. All of the following enzymes are regulated by calcium or calmodulin, except:





51. A common feature of all serine proteases is:





52.The normal cellular counterparts of oncogenes are important for the following function, except:





53. Which one of the following is the most significant risk factor for develpment of gastric carcinoma?





54. When carcinoma of stomach develops secondarily to permicious anemia, it is usually situated in the:





55. acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the:





56. With regard to the malignant behavior of leiomyosarcoma, the most important criterion is:





57. The type of mammary ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely to result in a palpable abnormality in the breast is:





58.All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplatic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except:





59.Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except:





60.Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hypertrophy of:





61.All of the following statements regarding subendocardinal infarction are true, except:





62. The percentage of pulmonary emboli, that proceed to infraction, is approximately:





63.The finish type of congenital nephritic syndrome occurs due to gene mutations affecting the following protein:





64. A vaterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown orgin. His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram-negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture?





65. A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat grain godown. After 5 days he developed fever and had axillary lymphadenopathy.A smear was sent to the laboratory to perform a specific staining. Which one of the following staining method would help in the identification of the suspected pathogen:





66. Which one of the following statements is true regarding pathogenicity of Mycobacteria species?





67. A VDRL reactive mother gave birth to an infant. All of the following would help in determining the risk of trasmission to the infant except:





68. A patient complained of chills and fever following a louse bite 2 weeks before . he had rashes all over he body and was delirious at the time of presentation to the hospital and subsequently went into coma. A provisional diagnosis of vasculitis due to Rickettsial infection was made/ Which one of the following can be causative agent:





69.The following diseases are associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection, except:





70. Which of the following parasitic infestation can lead to malabsorption syndrome?





71. A vitreous aspirate from a case of metastatic endophthalmitis on culture yields Gram-positive round to oval cells,12-14m in size. The aspirate on Gram staining shows the presence of pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most likely aetiological agent?





72. When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial signifying:





73. Misoprostol is a :





74. Which enzyme is inhabited by aminophylline?





75. Bisphosphonates act by:





76. Which one of the following drugs causes constipation?





77. The following are the benzodiazepines of choice in elderly and those with liver disease, except:





78. The following statements regarding benzodiazepines are true except:





79. Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of:





80. Concomitant administration of clonazepam with which of the following antiepileptic drug can precipitate absence status?





81. Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid metabolism?





82. The common side effect with Fluoxetine therapy is:





83. All are side effects of Chozapine, except:





84. The most common side effect reported with treatment with haloperidol is:





85. All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis,except:





86. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides?





87. All of the following are therapeutic uses of penicillin G, except:





88. Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?





89. A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be methicillin resistant on the anibiotics with be appropriate except:





90. One of the following statements regarding mycophenolate mofetil is incorrect:





91. All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors except:





92. Nevirapine is a:





93. Pre-treatment evaluation for lithium therapy should include:





94. All of the followingbare part of the treatment of lithium toxicity, except:





95. Spalding's sign occurs after:





96. Scap or crust abrasion appears brown:





97. Which of following tests in used to detect semen?





98. Medical qualification awarded by institutions outside India and recognized by MCI are registered in:





99.Fingerprint Bureau was first established in:





100.Physical quality of life index is measured by all except:





101. All the statements are true about standardization except:





102. The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trails is to:





103. The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to:





104. All the following are true in a randomized control trial (RCT) except:





105. In a village having population of 01000, we found patients with certain disease and the result of a new diagnostic test on that disease are given below: Disease Test result Present Absent + - 180 20 400 400 Which of the following is the positive predictive value of diagnostic test in that population?





106. Study the following table carefully and answer the following question: Disease Test result Present Absent + - 40 10 225 225 What is the sensitivity of diagnostic test?





107.Which of the following is most strongly associated with coronary heart disease?





108. Under the National Programme for control of Blindness, who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?





109. According to the World Health Organization, the definition of blindness is:





110. The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India is:





111. According to the World Health Report 2000, India’s health expenditure is





112. Indian (economic) real GDP growth for the year 2003 is:





113. In which of the following year the Transplantation of human Organs Act was passed by Government of India?





114. The extra energy allowances needed per day during pregnancy is:





115. The Premium of the “Community-based Universal Health Insurance Scheme” launched during 2003-04 ranges from:





116.Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to:





117. 110. As per the 1986-89 NPCB survey, what was the prevalence of blindness in India ( at visual acuity <6/60 in better eye)?





118.Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to:





119. A 58 years old woman, who had backache and recurrent chest infections for 6 months, develops sudden weakness of the legs and urinary retention. Her investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3 gm/dl,serum calcium 12.6 mg/dl, phosphate-2-5 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase-100u/l, serum albumin-3 gm/dl,gobulin-7.1 gm/dl and urea-178 mg/d. What is the most likely diagnosis?





120.Which of the following is not a major criteria for diagnosis of multiple mycloma?





121. B cell prolymphocytic leukemia patients differ from those with B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia in:





122. All of the following statements regarding primary effusion lymphoma are true except:





123. A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leucopenia. Which of following is the clinical diagnosis?





124. All of the following are major complications of massive transfusion, except:





125. All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis except:





126. All of the following may occur due to hyperkalemia, except:





127. All of the following may be seen in patients of cardiac tamponade except:





128. All of the following are true for mitral valve prolapsed, except:





129. Sudden cardiac death may occur in all of the following except:





130. Which of the following is least likely to cause infective endocarditis?





131. –Mycotic aneurysm is an aneurysm infected because of:





132. Myoctic abscesses are due to:





133. A 28 years old woman having limited eutaneous scleroderma for the last 10 years complaints of shortness of breath for last one month. Her pulmonary function tests PFT) are as follows:





134. Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor with:





135. Which of the following is not a common feature of anorexia nervosa?





136. Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of non –cirrhotic portal hypertension?





137. Which of the following colonic polyps is not pre malignant?





138. Drug induced lupus can be identified by:





139. Anticentromere antibodies are most commonly associated with





140. The presence of anti – Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody is a surrogate marker of one of the following:





141. Renal artery stenos is may occur in all of the following except:





142. Joint erosions are not a feature of:





143. All of the following are the known causes of osteoporosis except:





144. Which of the following is not a feature of hypercalcemia:





145. The most common location of hypertensive intracranial hemorrhage is:





146. The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:





147. Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagic stroke?





148. Which of the following is the most common type of Glial tumors?





149. Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in:





150. Which one of the following clinical findings excludes the diagnosis of polymyositis?





151. A young girl has consumed barium carbonate with suicidal intent. She complains of generalized muscle weakness. The most likely electrolyte is:





152. The most common malignancy found in Marjolin’s ulcer is:





153. The prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma is likely to be poor if the site of the tumor is:





154. Fine needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for diagnosing:





155. The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except:





156. Mixed tumors of the salivary glands are:





157. The most important prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is:





158. In which of the following types of breast carcinoma, would you consider biopsy of opposite breast?





159. The tumor, Which may occure in the residual breast or overlying skin following wide local excision and radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma, is:





160. Referred pain from all of the following conditions may be felt along the inners side of right thigh, except:





161. Apart form Escherichia coli, The other most common organism implicate in acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis is:





162. A patient of post cholecystectomy biliary stricture has undergone an ERCP three days ago. Following this she has developed acute cholangitis. The most likely organism is:





163. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding stones in the common bile duct?





164.Biliary stricture developing after laparascopic choice cystectomy usually occurs at which part of the common bile duct?





165. All of the following modalities can be used for in situ ablation of liver secondaries, except:





166. The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India as:





167. The treatment of choice for the management of carcinoma of the anal canal is:





168. The treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer is :





169. Which of the following drugs is not a part of the ‘Triple Therapy’ immune suppression for post – renal transplant patients?





170. Which of the following statements is true regarding testicular tumors?





171. Allen’s test is useful in evaluating





172. The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistuala is:





173. Dacron vascular graft is:





174. Which of the following is not a preferred site for planning vascular access for maintenance hemodialysis?





175. The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery as the present time is:





176. Which of the following is not a component of Glasgow coma scale?





177. Total score in Glasgow Coma scale of a conscious person is:





178. The following hormone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome:





179. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian disease?





180. A 15 year old female presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breasts are Tanner $ but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is





181. The treatment for a case of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is:





182. In which of the following genital tract malignancy, the risk of metastasis to ovary is the least?





183. The investigation of choice in a 55 years old postmenopausal woman who has presented with postmenopausal bleeding is





184. In a suspected of ovarian cancer, imaging work up is required for all of the following information, except






185. Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury?





186. A 40 years old woman presented to the gynecologist with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. The was no discharge from the cervix on the speculum examination. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was made based upon all of the following findings on microscopy except:





187. The most common cause of tubal block in India is





188. All of the following mechanisms of action of oral contraceptive pill are true, except:





189. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system?





190. All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk of upper genital tract infection in users of progestin – releasing IUDS, except:





191. Emergency contraception prevents pregnancy by all of the following mechanisms except:





192. Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following, except:





193. Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?





194. The best way of diagnosing Trisomy -21 during second trimester of pregnancy is:





195. At what period does tuberculosis flare up most commonly in a pregnant patient?





196. Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?





197. Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase in pregnancy?





198. Which vitamin deficient is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy?





199. A primigravida presents to casually at 32 weeks gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleedings and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by:





200. The following complications during pregnancy increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) except:





201. Indicators of impending uterine rupture during labour include all of the following except:





202. A normally developing 10 month old child should be able to do all of the following except:





203. A child is below the third percentile for height. His growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is :





204. All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except:





205. Which of the following is the principal mode of heart exchange in an infant incubator?





206. The following are characteristic of autism except:





207. All of the following may occur in Down’s Syndrome except:





208. Which of the following malformation in a newborn is specific for maternal insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?





209. The requirements of potassium is a child is:





210. The sodium content of ReSoMal (rehydration solution for malnourished children) is:





211. The most common etiological agent for acute bronchiolitis in infancy is:





212. With reference to mumps which of the following true?





213. The earliest indicator of response after starting iron in a 6 year old girl with iron deficiency is:





214. Late onset hemorrhagic disease of newborn is characterized by all of the following features except:





215. The following features are true for tetralogy of fallot, except:





216. Blalock and Taussing shunt is done between:





217. In which of the following conditions left atrium is not enlarged.





218. A 1 –month old boy is referred for failure to thrive on examination, he shows features of congestive failure. The femoral pulses are feeble as compared to branchial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:





219. The most important determinant of prognosis in wilms tumor:





220. A malignant tumor of childhood, that metastasizes to bones most often is:





221. The process underlying differences in expression of a gene, according to which parent has transmitted, is called:





222. A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and development disability can have all of the following. Except:





223. An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an example of all of the following, except:





224. In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case?





225. The ideal treatment of bilateral idiopathic clubfoot in a newborn is:





226. All of the following statements are true about development dysplasia (DDH) of the hip, except:





227. All are true regarding brachial plexus injury except:





228. “Rugger Jersey Spine” is seen in:





229. Which of the following conditions is least likely to presents as an eccentric lesion:





230. All of the statement are true about exotosis, except:





231. Brown tumors are seen in:





232. Which of the following malignant tumors is radioresistant?





233. Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristics of primary malignancy of:





234. Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by:





235. The average distance of the fovea from the temporal margin of the optic disc is:





236. The retina receives its blood supply from all, except:





237. The magnificent obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope is:





238. SAFE strategy is recommended for the control of:





239. Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of corneal ulcers caused by filamentous fungi?





240. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?





241. Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle glaucoma:





242. Which drug can cause macular toxicity when given intravitreally?





243. A case of Non – Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with a history of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination?





244. The most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is:





245. Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxations of the lens is seen in:





246. In which of the following uveitic conditions is it contraindicated to put in an intraocular lens after cataract surgery?





247. Which one of the following stromal systrophy is a recessive condition?





248. Which of the following statements is incorrect about pthisis bulbi?





249. The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults





250. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Optic glioma?





251. The most common second malignant in survivors of retinoblastoma is:





252. The postero superior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress,will lead to:





253. A 30 year-old male is having attic cholesteatoma of left ear with lateral sinus thrombophlebitis. Which of the following will be the operation of choice?





254. Which is the investigation of choice in assessing hearing loss in neonates?





255. Which of the following conditions causes the maximum hearing loss?





256. Sensorineural deafness may be feature of all, except:





257. During inspiration the main current of airflow in a normal nasal cavity is through:





258. A 5-year-old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the day of surgery he had running nose, temperature 37.5⁰C and dry cough. Which of the following should be the most appropriate decision for surgery?





259. Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa through the following membrance:





260. Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation?





261. Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action?





262. A patient has seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis?





263. Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in





264. A 24 years old unmarried woman has multiple nodular, cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment would be





265. A 45 years old farmer has itchy erythematous popular lesions on face, neck V area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be:





266. A 6months old infant had itchy erythematous papules and exudative lesions on the scalp, face, groins and axillae for one months. She also had vesicular lesions on the palms. The most likely diagnosis is:





267. In which of the following conditions parakeratosis most frequently occurs?





268. Which of the following muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure?





269. Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocurarine?





270.Which one of the following local anesthetics belongs to the ester group?





271.Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children:





272. Which one of the following agents sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines?





273. Which of the following statements is not true about etomidate?





274.Which of the following anesthetic agents does not tigger malignant hyperthermia?





275. Which of the following intravenous induction agents is the most suitable for day care surgery?





276. Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of postoperative shivering?





277. Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced hypotension during surgery?





278. A two-month-old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure. Regarding postoperative pain relief which one of the following is recommended





279. Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?





280. All of the following radioisotopes are used as system radionucleide, except:





281. Phosphorus32 emits:





282.Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer?





283. All of them use non-iznizing radiation, except:





284. Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?





285. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms tumour after sugery is:





286. The most radiosensitive tumor among the following is:





287. Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph?





288. Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a chest radiograph?





289. The procedure of choice for the evalution of an aneurysm is:





290. The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tuberculosis is:





291. The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:





292. The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is:





293. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in:





294. Loosening of association is an example of:





295. All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia, except:





296. Intense nihilism, somatization and agitation in old age are the hallmark symptoms of:





297. Mutism and akinesis in a person, who appears awake and even alert, is best described as:





298. Bright light treatment has been found to be most effective in treatment of:





299. Rivastigmine and Donepezil are drugs used predominantly in the management of:





300. Pavlov’s experiment is an example of:







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